So, in my research on tax question I often end up coming across answers on zeiri4.com and I have to say, the quality of responses can be …somewhat lacking. Then again, I'm not a professional so maybe they aren't wrong per se. To me It's actually more about how they only partially answer questions and leave some things vague.
Example 1: https://www.zeiri4.com/c_6/q_3442/
Here the asker has been living in Italy for more than 10 years and their whole life is based there. However they have left their 住民票 intact / not deregistered.
The answering tax advisor suggests that means the asker still has her 住所 in Japan, whereas by my understanding the mere existence of an address isn't actually what defines the 住所 for tax purposes (though of course, for other reasons the asker might still be considered having their 住所 in Japan).
Example 2: https://www.zeiri4.com/c_6/q_33489/
Here the asker wants to know if only the assets inherited by her husband (in Japan) from his foreign national foreign country located father are considered for taxation while his brother's (not in Japan, not Japanese) isn't. She (misguidedly) asks whether only her husband would be counted as a the sole heir by Japan.
The responding advisor doesn't really answer what's on the asker's mind, but simply says the total amount is X and inheritance tax is calculated on that based on statutory heirs, and that the brother would (likely, making assumptions on foreign law?) be a statutory heir.
He's not exactly wrong but ultimately, as I read it, leaves the asker likely thinking the brother's inheritance will be included in the total taxable inheritance amount.
Example 3: https://www.zeiri4.com/c_6/q_159490/
I actually wonder if that person read my recent comments here as it's super related. Also looks likely written by a foreigner given several Japanese mistakes (wrong kanji) in the question.
Anyway, here the asker wants to know, specifically given an explicit situation (i.e., the heir is 無制限納税義務者), whether foreign unpaid income tax liability can be treated as debt and deducted from inheritance.
The responder simply says one has to be careful whether the heir is 無制限納税義務者 or but otherwise it's possible to deduct debt, which I don't think was the question. Though perhaps the advisor does in fact affirm what the asker asked, saying that. It's not clear.
Then goes on and talks about the fact that for statutory heir determination or at least for their asset division foreign law would apply (which nobody asked).
My question: Is this representative of the quality one would expect talking to an actual advisor in Japan in person?
P.S. I don't mean to bash these folks. I understand on that site they only have the info in the question text and I gather this site is ultimately just used as an "in" to have the asker (or readers) reach out for a paid consultation, but I woud still expect them to be extra sure to provide an extensive and fully accurate answer to build confidence and trust, especially with other unrelated readers.
by ixampl